The analytical dream team of redbreegull and ovary have me convinced.
A decline isn't a decline until more than four years have passed. Although the decline is a decline during the fifth year of downward movement, that fifth year is to be considered the first year of decline. That being said, decline following those initial four years of decline are not required to extend by an additional four years in duration before such time as they may be referred to as a decline. Only the first four years do not exist (but do).
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